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Thread: YAH'S Calendar In The Heavens Genesis 1:14.

  1. #106
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    The Scriptures interpret Scriptures.

    Quote Originally Posted by Spying View Post
    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    I wish to extend thankfulness to you for pointing out the numerous translations which disagree with my translation of Luke 24:21. Indeed, I do not know of anyone else previous to myself who has undertaken the responsibility to critically examine that verse to see what the Greek actually says without bringing to the table the false belief that Messiah Yahushua arose from the dead on the first day of the week, that is, Sunday, or, according to your belief, on the 16th of Abib.
    All translators bring their personal beliefs to their work of translating, and these beliefs often interfere with the perception of the truth. I understand that your belief in a Lunar Sabbath makes you fight aggressively against three days and three nights just like my belief in three days and three nights actually caused me to really dig into the Greek of Luke 24:21. Here is a link to the Translation Thread on Lo Ammi where I posted about this issue in the year 2008:

    http://www.lo-ammi.org/forum/showthr...-Translation#2

    It is my personal opinion (dogma) that your understanding of New Testament Greek is not sufficient to qualify you to critically examine my translation of Luke 24:21, and that deficiency is why you turn to all the English translations as your proof that I am mistranslating the verse. I hold this dogma because you have not been forthcoming about explaining to me the essential difference between "apago" and "ago apo".
    You still have opportunity to do so!
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    Spying, you walked right into this coming didn't you. Spying, do really believe that I do not know the differences in these words? If you do, then I also have some beach front property in MO that I want to sell you and Ken too. It's not that I don't know, its that I choose NOT to put my own interpretations on words and scriptural terms used in the scriptures. Why? Because the scripture interprets itself, and with its own words and terms used.

    Let's see if the 2 year olds can learn this, and accept the scriptures own interpretation of its own words and terms it uses.

    The word third=G5154=tritos comes from Ordinal from τρεῖς (G5140) treis=1.three http://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexic...gs=G5140&t=KJV I hope the 2 year olds can follow this so far.

    Here is the scriptural term used in Luke 24:21, as it is speaking of a past tense event. third G5154 day G2250 since G575. Well, here is the scriptures own term for Quote "" Four G5067 days G2250 ago G575 Acts 10:30. Well, the Luke 24:21 term could be translated "three days ago", but it CANNOT be translated as "four days ago" or Luke would have said "four days ago" don't you think. Now, come back and tell me, that Luke 24:21 is talking about "four days ago"? Really??

    I don't put my own interpretations on scriptural words or terms it uses itself, because it interprets itself for me. I wonder if the 2 year olds can learn this.

    Shalom,
    Eliyahu C.

  2. #107
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    Thumbs up Luke 24:21 does NOT mean the fourth day, or four days ago, that these things happene.

    Quote Originally Posted by Eliyah View Post
    Spying, you walked right into this coming didn't you. Spying, do really believe that I do not know the differences in these words? If you do, then I also have some beach front property in MO that I want to sell you and Ken too. It's not that I don't know, its that I choose NOT to put my own interpretations on words and scriptural terms used in the scriptures. Why? Because the scripture interprets itself, and with its own words and terms used.

    Let's see if the 2 year olds can learn this, and accept the scriptures own interpretation of its own words and terms it uses.

    The word third=G5154=tritos comes from Ordinal from τρεῖς (G5140) treis=1.three http://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexic...gs=G5140&t=KJV I hope the 2 year olds can follow this so far.

    Here is the scriptural term used in Luke 24:21, as it is speaking of a past tense event. third G5154 day G2250 since G575. Well, here is the scriptures own term for Quote "" Four G5067 days G2250 ago G575 Acts 10:30. Well, the Luke 24:21 term could be translated "three days ago", but it CANNOT be translated as "four days ago" or Luke would have said "four days ago" don't you think. Now, come back and tell me, that Luke 24:21 is talking about "four days ago"? Really??

    I don't put my own interpretations on scriptural words or terms it uses itself, because it interprets itself for me. I wonder if the 2 year olds can learn this.

    Shalom,
    Eliyahu C.
    Thee above verses absolutely proves, that Luke 24:21 does NOT mean the FOURTH day, or four days ago, and Messiah gave His own interpretation of the third day in Luke 13:32 when He said...And G2532 he said G2036 unto them, G846 Go ye, G4198 and tell G2036 that G5026 fox, G258 Behold, G2400 I cast out G1544 devils, G1140 and G2532 I do G2005 cures G2392 to day G4594 and G2532 to morrow, G839 and G2532 the third G5154 day I shall be perfected. G5048

    To day, and to morrow, and the third day I shall be perfected. In other words, the day after tomorrow, He shall be perfected. That is why I said, this modern translation of Luke 24:21 is the best...WNT(i) 21 But we were hoping that it was He who was about to ransom Israel. Yes, and moreover it was the day before yesterday that these things happened. http://studybible.info/WNT/Luke%2024:21

    I have done exactly as thee Apostle Shaul(Paul) instructed to do....In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth; And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will. 2 Timothy 2:25-26.

  3. #108
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    "ἄγει" is not "ἐστιν"

    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    OK, if I walking into something, let's see what I walked into. Here is the later half of Luke 24:21 which I will translate for you taken from the Textus Receptus on which the KJV is partially based:

    ἀλλά γε σὺν πᾶσιν τούτοις τρίτην ταύτην ἡμέραν ἄγει σήμερον, ἀφ᾽ οὗ ταῦτα ἐγένετο

    "ἀλλά (but) γε (indeed) σὺν (together with) πᾶσιν (all) τούτοις (things) τρίτην (third) ταύτην (this very) ἡμέραν (day) ἄγει (leads) σήμερον (today, this day), ἀφ᾽ (from, off, away) οὗ (which) ταῦτα (these things) ἐγένετο (it happened)

    Notice above that "τρίτην ταύτην ἡμέραν" are in the accusative case, and they are all singular in number. Together they comprise the direct object of the verb "ἄγει". "ἄγει" is the third person singular present tense of the verb "ago". "σήμερον" is an adverb, and it should not be considered the subject of the verb "ἄγει". I translate the sentence something like this:

    But, indeed, together with all these things, today, it leads the very third day from which it happened these things.

    Now, here is first half of the Greek of Acts 10:30 which I will now translate for you:

    καὶ ὁ Κορνήλιος ἔφη Ἀπὸ τετάρτης ἡμέρας μέχρι ταύτης τῆς ὥρας ἤμην νηστεύων

    καὶ (and) (the) Κορνήλιος (Cornelius) ἔφη (said) Ἀπὸ (from, off, away) τετάρτης (fourth) ἡμέρας (day) μέχρι (until) ταύτης (this) τῆς (the) ὥρας (hour) ἤμην (I was) νηστεύων (fasting)

    Everything put together, the above could be rendered literally thusly:

    "And the Cornelius said, I was fasting from the fourth day until this the hour."

    Please notice above that "ἤμην" is the first person singular imperfect tense of εἰμί and that "νηστεύων" is the nominative singular present participle of νηστεύω. "Ἀπὸ" above serves as a preposition whose object is always found in the genitive case. "The fourth day" and "this very hour" are all in the genitive case and they go with the preposition, Ἀπὸ. The sentence could be translated in this manner:

    "From the fourth day until this very hour, I was fasting."


    If you look closely, you can see that the English Translators of the KJV took a number of liberties. The Greek does not say "four days". The Greek says "fourth day".

    Now, let's look at a verse which more closely shows what we both are attempting to demonstrate to each other. Here is John 11:39:

    "λέγει ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ἄρατε τὸν λίθον λέγει αὐτῷ ἡ ἀδελφὴ τοῦ τεθνηκότος Μάρθα Κύριε ἤδη ὄζει τεταρταῖος γάρ ἐστιν"

    Let's take a look at the underlined portion which is Martha's reply to Yahushua:

    Κύριε (YAHWEH) ἤδη (already) ὄζει (he stinks) τεταρταῖος (four days) γάρ (for) ἐστιν (it is)

    Put all together Martha says:

    "YAHWEH, he already stinks for it is four days."

    So, the Greek can state four days in several ways as you say, but notice that the Greek language does have a Greek word for "is" which is "ἐστιν". Now, I wonder how many times Luke uses "ἐστιν" in both of his books? Luke is absolutely not saying in Luke 24:21 that "it is" the third day so Christians must ask themselves why Luke uses "ἄγει" instead of "ἐστιν". The use of "ἄγει", for all those willing to accept it, shows that Luke considers that the third day is being led away by the then present day as the use of "σήμερον" suggests. I really do not know what else I can say about this issue.

    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    The Currahee Band Of Brothers Are Beginning To Arise In The HOLY PLACE! Listen to them!!!

  4. #109
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    Quote Originally Posted by Spying View Post
    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    OK, if I walking into something, let's see what I walked into. Here is the later half of Luke 24:21 which I will translate for you taken from the Textus Receptus on which the KJV is partially based:

    ἀλλά γε σὺν πᾶσιν τούτοις τρίτην ταύτην ἡμέραν ἄγει σήμερον, ἀφ᾽ οὗ ταῦτα ἐγένετο

    "ἀλλά (but) γε (indeed) σὺν (together with) πᾶσιν (all) τούτοις (things) τρίτην (third) ταύτην (this very) ἡμέραν (day) ἄγει (leads) σήμερον (today, this day), ἀφ᾽ (from, off, away) οὗ (which) ταῦτα (these things) ἐγένετο (it happened)

    Notice above that "τρίτην ταύτην ἡμέραν" are in the accusative case, and they are all singular in number. Together they comprise the direct object of the verb "ἄγει". "ἄγει" is the third person singular present tense of the verb "ago". "σήμερον" is an adverb, and it should not be considered the subject of the verb "ἄγει". I translate the sentence something like this:

    But, indeed, together with all these things, today, it leads the very third day from which it happened these things.

    Now, here is first half of the Greek of Acts 10:30 which I will now translate for you:

    καὶ ὁ Κορνήλιος ἔφη Ἀπὸ τετάρτης ἡμέρας μέχρι ταύτης τῆς ὥρας ἤμην νηστεύων

    καὶ (and) (the) Κορνήλιος (Cornelius) ἔφη (said) Ἀπὸ (from, off, away) τετάρτης (fourth) ἡμέρας (day) μέχρι (until) ταύτης (this) τῆς (the) ὥρας (hour) ἤμην (I was) νηστεύων (fasting)

    Everything put together, the above could be rendered literally thusly:

    "And the Cornelius said, I was fasting from the fourth day until this the hour."

    Please notice above that "ἤμην" is the first person singular imperfect tense of εἰμί and that "νηστεύων" is the nominative singular present participle of νηστεύω. "Ἀπὸ" above serves as a preposition whose object is always found in the genitive case. "The fourth day" and "this very hour" are all in the genitive case and they go with the preposition, Ἀπὸ. The sentence could be translated in this manner:

    "From the fourth day until this very hour, I was fasting."
    ( And Cornelius said, Four days ago I was fasting until this hour What is the difference here Spying? This means the same thing, from the fourth day until this hour, or four days ago until this hour I was fasting.)

    If you look closely, you can see that the English Translators of the KJV took a number of liberties.( Spying, the translators did NOT add the words "THE THIRD DAY" in Luke 24:21, Luke wrote this, NOT the translators, and neither did the translators write the words "FOURTH DAY" in Acts 10:30.) The Greek does not say "four days". The Greek says "fourth day"( I know the Greek word for "FOURTH" is here, and this was my exact point in the previous post, the root Greek word for "fourth" is "four" and the root Greek word for "THIRD" is "three" and "third" does NOT mean "fourth" and the word or words "four or fourth day" is NOT in LUKE 24:21 either.)

    Now, let's look at a verse which more closely shows what we both are attempting to demonstrate to each other. Here is John 11:39:

    "λέγει ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ἄρατε τὸν λίθον λέγει αὐτῷ ἡ ἀδελφὴ τοῦ τεθνηκότος Μάρθα Κύριε ἤδη ὄζει τεταρταῖος γάρ ἐστιν"

    Let's take a look at the underlined portion which is Martha's reply to Yahushua:( The Greek word "Κύριε" means Lord or Master, not YAHWEH. And, Yes, let's do look at this more closely, because you claim, that Messiah was put to death on a Wednesday, and that He arose on the Sabbath evening as the sun was setting, in your own words.)

    ( Wednesday=1 day=1st day, He was placed in the tomb that evening. Thursday=2 days=2nd day, Friday=3 days=3rd day, Saturday=4 days=4th day=Resurrection, and Sunday, =5th day, the women come to the tomb.. ( By this time Messiah would be STINKING, STINKING. If what you say and believe is true, the women would have surely known this, and the scriptures will prove, that Martha was among the women, that came to anoint Messiah's body on the 1st day of the week.)

    Κύριε (YAHWEH) ἤδη (already) ὄζει (he stinks) τεταρταῖος (four days) γάρ (for) ἐστιν (it is)

    Put all together Martha says:

    "YAHWEH, he already stinks for it is four days."

    So, the Greek can state four days in several ways as you say, but notice that the Greek language does have a Greek word for "is" which is "ἐστιν". Now, I wonder how many times Luke uses "ἐστιν" in both of his books? Luke is absolutely not saying in Luke 24:21 that "it is" the third day so Christians must ask themselves why Luke uses "[COLOR="#0000CD"]ἄγει(This word simply means LEAD, and do you not consider, that Luke used this word, because the day began that very morning, instead of the previous evening!) " instead of "ἐστιν". The use of "ἄγει", for all those willing to accept it, shows that Luke considers that the third day is being led away(Luke does NOT say LEADS AWAY, look back at your translation above.) by the then present day as the use of "σήμερον" suggests. I really do not know what else I can say about this issue.

    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    Spying, this was my exact point, and you also prove it for me. I know the Greek word fourth is used in Acts 10:30, however, the Greek root word for
    fourth
    is the wordfour. Others can see here...http://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexic...gs=G5064&t=KJV And the Greek root word for third is three. Others can see here...http://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexic...gs=G5140&t=KJV

    Spying said...
    I really do not know what else I can say about this issue.
    What else is there to say? When YOU show me the words "FOURTH DAY" in the Luke 24:21 verse, I will be the first to agree with you.

    This is a correct translation of Luke 24:21...
    But, indeed, together with all these things, today, it leads the very third day from which it happened these things.
    However, please show me the Greek word or words four or fourth in this verse?? It's not there Spying, and don't try to kid me or yourself that it is there. Luke did NOT say, today, leads the third day, which begins the fourth day, from which these things happened.

    If Luke meant it was beginning the fourth day, he would have said so, as it does in Acts 10:30, the word "THIRD" does NOT mean "FOURTH" and vice versa, and Luke is NOT going to leave his readers to """figure out"" this as Ken would have people to believe.

    I have already presented 2 other independent translations on this verse, and BOTH of these believe in "the three days and three nights" or 72 hours theory, and here below are their translation on the Luke 24:21 verse.

    First, is Elder Jacob O. Meyer, Assemblies of Yahweh, Bethel PA, THE SACRED SCRIPTURES version quote..
    But we hoped that it was he who should redeem Israel. Yes and besides all this, it is now the third day since these things came to pass. Luke 24:21.
    Unquote.

    Second, THE SCRIPTURES version, published by the Institute Scripture Research(I.S.R.) quote...
    We, however, were expecting that it was He who was going to redeem Yisra'el. But besides all this, today is the third day since these matters took place. Luke 24:21.
    Unquote.

    I suppose these people who believe in the 72 hour theory were also biased in their translations too. This Luke 24:21 verse does NOT support your position, if it did, the wordsfourth day would be in this text, and not the words "THE THIRD DAY".

    Now, I would appreciate it, if you would go over to "THE THREE DAYS AND THE THREE NIGHTS " thread and answer those questions I asked you.

  5. #110
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    Question John 11:1-39.

    Spying was pointing out, that Lazarus of Bethany was dead for four days John 11:39, and we read quote...Now a certain man was sick, named Lazarus, of Bethany, the town of Mary and her sister Martha. John 11:1. (It was that Mary which anointed the Lord with ointment, and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother Lazarus was sick.) John 11:2.

    In John 11:17 we read...Then when Jesus came, he found that he had lain in the grave four days already. Then, in John 11:39 we read again...Jesus said, Take ye away the stone. Martha, the sister of him that was dead, saith unto him, Lord, by this time he stinketh: for he hath been dead four days.

    Well, here is Spying's own admission quote...
    It is common knowledge among some of the fringe elements of Christianity (an example would be the former Worldwide Church of God and her many offshoots) that Messiah Yahushua suffered and died on Wednesday, that HE was buried as the sun was setting late Wednesday, and that HE arose from the dead exactly 72 hours later on Saturday as the sun was in the process of setting. There exists biblical evidence for this reckoning.
    See here..http://www.lo-ammi.org/forum/showthr...-Translation#2 Really? Where are these scriptures?

    Well, if Messiah died on a Wednesday, about the 9th hour, and He was buried as the sun was setting late-- Wednesday=1st day, Thursday=2nd day, Friday=3rd day, Saturday=4th day=and Messiah's resurrection at sunset, and Sunday=the 5th day, =the first day of the week, then Messiah's body would stinketh, and these women would surely have known this. Who would go anoint a dead body on the 5th day?? Also, if this above is true, this "first day of the week" Luke 24:21 would be called " the fifth day " and NOT the "third day" nor the "fourth day" that these things happened.

    And the scriptures will prove, that Mary and Martha of Bethany, were indeed among the "women" that came to anoint Messiah's body on the first day of the week.

  6. #111
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    Thumbs up The Beauty Of The Greek Language!

    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    It is my personal feeling that I have honestly and sincerely given you the very best translation of Luke 24:21 possible based upon the meaning and cases and tenses of the Greek words found in both the Textus Receptus and the GNT Morph! Allow me to make this perfectly clear, I have no where stated that the Greek word for "four" or the Greek word for "fourth" is found in Luke 24:21. If I did so, then this should be a simple thing for you to produce since you possess a photographic memory. I also have made it perfectly clear that "ἐστιν" is not found in Luke 24:21. If you believe that "ἐστιν" is indeed found there, then you have a responsibility to show all of us a copy of a Greek text which contains "ἐστιν". As it is, the Greek texts, which we possess, show that "ἄγει" is found there, and not "ἐστιν". This reality forces you to translate "ἄγει" according to what it means, and not according to what you and the vast majority of Christians imagine what "ἄγει" means.
    This reality also applies to the preposition "Ἀπὸ" and the shortened form of " Ἀπὸ", namely, "ἀφ᾽" which is found in Luke 24:21. You brought Acts 10:30 to my attention, and when I told you that the Greek really says "from the fourth day" and not "four days ago", what is your reply? You say:
    "What is the difference here Spying? This means the same thing, from the fourth day until this hour, or four days ago until this hour I was fasting."
    They absolutely are not the same. If I should say "four days ago, I was fasting", does this statement tell anyone or everyone when my fast began? Absolutely not! My fast could have begun at any time four days ago, but, if I should say that I was fasting "from the fourth day until the present", this tells everyone that I began my fast at the beginning of the fourth day. Now, I realize that these may seem like unimportant technical details to you and to others, but I testify that such details are really the beauty of the Greek language. Where the English is sloppy and ambiguous, the Greek is detailed and exact, and we all should be thankful for that beauty.
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    The Currahee Band Of Brothers Are Beginning To Arise In The HOLY PLACE! Listen to them!!!

  7. #112
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    Smile

    Quote Originally Posted by Spying View Post
    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    It is my personal feeling that I have honestly and sincerely given you the very best translation of Luke 24:21 possible based upon the meaning and cases and tenses of the Greek words found in both the Textus Receptus and the GNT Morph! Allow me to make this perfectly clear, I have no where stated that the Greek word for "four" or the Greek word for "fourth" is found in Luke 24:21.( Spying, I never said you did. However, evidently Ken thinks so, and you need to correct him on that issue. ) If I did so, then this should be a simple thing for you to produce since you possess a photographic memory. I also have made it perfectly clear that "ἐστιν" is not found in Luke 24:21. If you believe that "ἐστιν" is indeed found there, then you have a responsibility to show all of us a copy of a Greek text which contains "ἐστιν". As it is, the Greek texts, which we possess, show that "ἄγει" is found there, and not "ἐστιν".( Spying, please read my post ABOVE, however, this word by no means, means the FOURTH DAY was beginning either.) This reality forces you to translate "ἄγει" according to what it means, and not according to what you and the vast majority of Christians imagine what "ἄγει" means.
    This reality also applies to the preposition "Ἀπὸ" and the shortened form of " Ἀπὸ", namely, "ἀφ᾽" which is found in Luke 24:21. You brought Acts 10:30 to my attention, and when I told you that the Greek really says "from the fourth day" and not "four days ago", what is your reply? You say:
    "What is the difference here Spying? This means the same thing, from the fourth day until this hour, or four days ago until this hour I was fasting."
    They absolutely are not the same. If I should say "four days ago, I was fasting", does this statement tell anyone or everyone when my fast began? Absolutely not! My fast could have begun at any time four days ago, but, if I should say that I was fasting "from the fourth day until the present", this tells everyone that I began my fast at the beginning of the fourth day. Now, I realize that these may seem like unimportant technical details to you and to others, but I testify that such details are really the beauty of the Greek language. Where the English is sloppy and ambiguous, the Greek is detailed and exact, and we all should be thankful for that beauty.
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    You brought Acts 10:30 to my attention, and when I told you that the Greek really says "from the fourth day" and not "four days ago", what is your reply? You say:
    "What is the difference here Spying? This means the same thing, from the fourth day until this hour, or four days ago until this hour I was fasting."
    Oh it does NOT?

    Example: If I say, four(or the fourth) days ago, I was fasting until this very hour, people are going to know, that Sunday was the fourth day ago from today which is Wednesday, until this very hour, that I was fasting. People are going to know, that I began four days ago, or the fourth day ago.

    However, if I say, three(or the third) days ago, I was fasting until this very hour, people are going to know, that Monday was the third day ago from today which is Wednesday, until this very hour, that I was fasting.

    And the point I was letting the scriptures make for itself is this: Acts 10:30 has this phrase... Four(fourth) G5067 days G2250 ago G575 Others can see here...http://www.blbclassic.org/search/tra...days+ago&t=KJV

    Luke 24:21 has this phrase...the G5026 third G5154 day G2250 since G575 Others can see here...http://www.blbclassic.org/search/tra...y&page=2&t=KJV Both are using the exact same phrase, except Luke 24:21 says "the third day", and Acts 10:30 says "the fourth day". A day is either the "third day" ago, or its the "fourth day" ago, and "the third day" does NOT mean "the fourth day".

    So please, get off of it, I know what these terms mean, and I believe other people know what these terms mean by now too.

    Now, I would appreciate it, if you would please go over to THE THREE DAYS AND THE THREE NIGHTS thread and answer those questions I asked with a yes or a no answer.

  8. #113
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    Thumbs up Κύριε

    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    You asserted to me:
    "The Greek word "Κύριε" means Lord or Master, not YAHWEH."
    When I removed "Κύριε" from Martha's reply and replaced it with YAHWEH, I knew that someone could possibly challenge that removal because Christians do not normally think of Yahushua in the flesh as being the incarnate YAHWEH. The Apostle Paul writes:
    1 Corinthians 12:3
    3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of ELOHIM calleth Yahushua accursed: and that no man can say that Yahushua is Kurios (YAHWEH), but by the Holy Spirit.
    In every post, I acknowledge that My Messiah Yahushua is YAHWEH. I have no difficulty in this confession because of the evidence of the LXX where the Rabbis translated the Hebrew, YAHWEH, directly into KURIOS. In the LXX, ADON is also translated as KURIOS (please consult Psalms 110:1 [Psalms 109:1 in the LXX] to see that both YAHWEH and ADON are rendered by KURIOS.
    Messiah Yahushua Himself quotes Psalms 110:1 in Mark 12:36. Consult the Greek New Testament, and you will see that KURIOS is used there. If you will, I would also have you look at HaSatan's attempted temptations of Yahushua where Yahushua quotes Old Testament Scriptures in rebuke of HaSatan. In those quotes you will see that in the Greek, YAHWEH is translated as KURIOS.
    "Kurie" is used all over the place in the LXX translating the Hebrew "O YAHWEH" into "Κύριε". In the Greek New Testament, "Κύριε" is used by Peter in reference to Yahushua (see the Luke 5:8), and "Κύριε" is also used by the Leper to appeal to Yahushua (see Luke 5:12), and as we just saw "Κύριε" is used by Martha in addressing Yahushua.
    Now, Eliyah, whenever folks addressed Yahushua with the equvilent of "Κύριε" in New Testament times, what makes you so certain that they were thinking of Yahushua as you just indicated that you think of HIM (before you answer, you might want to take a look at the Greek of Luke 5:5)?
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    The Currahee Band Of Brothers Are Beginning To Arise In The HOLY PLACE! Listen to them!!!

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    Quote Originally Posted by Spying View Post
    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    You asserted to me:
    "The Greek word "Κύριε" means Lord or Master, not YAHWEH."
    When I removed "Κύριε" from Martha's reply and replaced it with YAHWEH, I knew that someone could possibly challenge that removal because Christians do not normally think of Yahushua in the flesh as being the incarnate YAHWEH. The Apostle Paul writes:
    1 Corinthians 12:3
    3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of ELOHIM calleth Yahushua accursed: and that no man can say that Yahushua is Kurios (YAHWEH), but by the Holy Spirit.
    In every post, I acknowledge that My Messiah Yahushua is YAHWEH. I have no difficulty in this confession because of the evidence of the LXX where the Rabbis translated the Hebrew, YAHWEH, directly into KURIOS. In the LXX, ADON is also translated as KURIOS (please consult Psalms 110:1 [Psalms 109:1 in the LXX] to see that both YAHWEH and ADON are rendered by KURIOS.
    Messiah Yahushua Himself quotes Psalms 110:1 in Mark 12:36. Consult the Greek New Testament, and you will see that KURIOS is used there. If you will, I would also have you look at HaSatan's attempted temptations of Yahushua where Yahushua quotes Old Testament Scriptures in rebuke of HaSatan. In those quotes you will see that in the Greek, YAHWEH is translated as KURIOS.
    "Kurie" is used all over the place in the LXX translating the Hebrew "O YAHWEH" into "Κύριε". In the Greek New Testament, "Κύριε" is used by Peter in reference to Yahushua (see the Luke 5:8), and "Κύριε" is also used by the Leper to appeal to Yahushua (see Luke 5:12), and as we just saw "Κύριε" is used by Martha in addressing Yahushua.
    Now, Eliyah, whenever folks addressed Yahushua with the equvilent of "Κύριε" in New Testament times, what makes you so certain that they were thinking of Yahushua as you just indicated that you think of HIM (before you answer, you might want to take a look at the Greek of Luke 5:5)?
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    Spying, I know that, I was pointing out that "Κύριε" means LORD or MASTER, and He is, I point this out in my articles too, so please, don't make a mountain out of a mole hill.

    I have to laugh..

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    Are you going to answer those questions?

    Spying, Are you going to answer those questions in THE THREE DAYS AND THREE NIGHTS thread?

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    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    If you agreed with me, then why did you challenge my usage? What was your purpose in doing so?
    Being the Master (ἐπιστάτης) of this forum, it is not my good pleasure just yet to move to another thread. I still have more to say concerning your reply to me in your post # 109 on this thread. Afterwards, maybe later.
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am (εἰμί),
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    The Currahee Band Of Brothers Are Beginning To Arise In The HOLY PLACE! Listen to them!!!

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    Quote Originally Posted by Spying View Post
    Hi Eliyah,
    Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
    If you agreed with me, then why did you challenge my usage? What was your purpose in doing so?
    Being the Master (ἐπιστάτης) of this forum, it is not my good pleasure just yet to move to another thread. I still have more to say concerning your reply to me in your post # 109 on this thread. Afterwards, maybe later.
    Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am (εἰμί),
    Sincerely, Latuwr
    I merely pointed out, that it means LORD or MASTER. Why do you think everything I say is a challenge? And, to you, you may think your a master, and frankly I do not really care one way or the other. And you said...
    I really do not know what else I can say about this issue.
    There is not much more to say.

    Again, I have to laugh.

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    Spying, I have ONLY ONE καθηγητής and I follow Him everywhere He goes. See Matthew 23:8,10.

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    Yahushua IS Yahweh!

    Quote Originally Posted by Eliyah View Post
    I merely pointed out, that it means LORD or MASTER. Why do you think everything I say is a challenge? And, to you, you may think your a master, and frankly I do not really care one way or the other. And you said... There is not much more to say.

    Again, I have to laugh.
    Shalom Eliyahu C, when you wrote this to "correct" Spying in his statement that Martha ADDRESSED Yeshua/Yahushua AS Yahweh:

    Originally spoken by Eliyahu:
    "The Greek word "Κύριε" means Lord or Master, not YAHWEH."
    Do you stand behind that "correction" you were rendering to Spying, or do you agree with his statement that Yahushua IS Yahweh, as testified to by Martha and others? A simple yes I agree, or a simple no, I disagree, and I stand by my "correction" to him that "Κύριε" does NOT mean Yahweh. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

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    Messiah IS BOTH LORD=Master and Yahweh-shua=Yahweh-Savior.

    Quote Originally Posted by ImAHebrew View Post
    Shalom Eliyahu C, when you wrote this to "correct" Spying in his statement that Martha ADDRESSED Yeshua/Yahushua AS Yahweh:

    Do you stand behind that "correction" you were rendering to Spying, or do you agree with his statement that Yahushua IS Yahweh, as testified to by Martha and others? A simple yes I agree, or a simple no, I disagree, and I stand by my "correction" to him that "Κύριε" does NOT mean Yahweh. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
    Ken, Messiah is BOTH Lord=Master, and Yahweh-Savior, It's hard for me to believe, that YOU and Spying don't fully understand this. Yes, "Κύριε" means Lord, Master-see here...http://www.blbclassic.org/lang/lexic...gs=G2962&t=KJV And, yes, where "Κύριε" is, is the name Yahweh.

    Example: For G1063 David G1138 is not G3756 ascended G305 into G1519 the heavens: G3772 but G1161 he saith G3004 himself, G846 The LORD G2962 said G2036 unto my G3450 Lord, G2962 Sit thou G2521 on G1537 my G3450 right hand, G1188 Acts 2:34. See Psalms 110:1-5 where this is quoted from. Also, Therefore G3767 let G1097 G0 all G3956 the house G3624 of Israel G2474 know G1097 assuredly, G806 that G3754 God G2316 hath made G4160 that same G5126 Jesus, G2424 whom G3739 ye G5210 have crucified, G4717 both G2532 Lord G2962(Yahweh) and G2532 Christ.(Messiah) G5547

    Many in Christianity can ONLY see the title of " Lord", and many who claim to believe in YAH ALL MIGHTY can ONLY see the name of "Yahweh" however, He is BOTH, or can you not see that? I hope you do see it, or otherwise, the scriptures would not have used Κύριε for His name now would it.

    Shalom, YAH Bless!

    Eliyahu C.

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